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CompTIA A+ Core 1 · 220-1201 · free practice

Free CompTIA A+ Core 1 practice test, every option explained

Ten 220-1201 practice questions, two from each domain, including a multiple-response item. Work them like real support tickets, then read why each option fixes the problem, comes at the wrong moment, or does not match the evidence.

  • Up to 90 questions
  • 90 minutes
  • Pass: 675 / 900
CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 practice exams 2026 course cover

10 free A+ Core 1 practice questions

Taken from the course, two per domain. Click an option to answer; the explanation under every option appears as soon as you do.

0 of 10 answered · 0 correctEvery option is explained after you answer
Mobile DevicesQuestion 1 of 10

A technician has turned on Bluetooth on a user's phone and put a new headset into pairing mode. Which is the NEXT step in the pairing process?

  • Correct. After Bluetooth is on and the accessory is in pairing mode, the next step is to find the device on the phone and select it.
  • Testing comes last, after the pairing is complete.
  • A PIN or passkey is entered or confirmed after the device has been selected, not before.
  • NFC is optional for some accessories and is not a standard pairing step.
Why it matters: Typical Bluetooth pairing order: enable Bluetooth, enable pairing mode, find and select the device, enter or confirm the PIN, then test connectivity.
NetworkingQuestion 2 of 10

A technician is assigning a static address to a printer on a SOHO LAN. Which address is in a private IPv4 range and suitable for internal use?

  • 192.169 is public; only 192.168 is private.
  • 172.32 is just outside the private 172.16 to 172.31 range, so it is public.
  • 11.x.x.x is public; only 10.x.x.x is the private Class A range.
  • Correct. 172.20.x.x falls within the private 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 range.
Why it matters: Private IPv4 ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0/16. They are not routed on the public internet.
HardwareQuestion 3 of 10

A customer purchased an Intel Core Ultra 7 265K desktop processor. Which socket must the new motherboard have?

  • Correct. Core Ultra 200S desktop processors use LGA 1851.
  • LGA 1700 supports 12th through 14th generation Core processors, not Core Ultra 200S.
  • LGA 1200 supports 10th and 11th generation Core processors.
  • AM5 is AMD's socket and cannot accept any Intel processor.
Why it matters: Intel Core Ultra 200S desktop processors use the LGA 1851 socket, which replaced LGA 1700.
Virtualization and Cloud ComputingQuestion 4 of 10

An IT manager asks why the company's containers start in seconds and use less memory than its VMs. Which explanation is MOST accurate?

  • Containers still need a host OS; it is their shared kernel that makes them light.
  • Containers do not rely on a hypervisor at all; they are isolated processes on the host OS.
  • Running containers use host RAM like any other process; cloud storage is not memory.
  • Correct. Because containers reuse the host kernel, they skip booting a separate OS, which saves time and memory.
Why it matters: Key difference: a VM virtualizes hardware and runs its own OS; a container virtualizes the OS and shares the host kernel.
Hardware and Network TroubleshootingQuestion 5 of 10

A user reports a burning smell coming from the back of a desktop PC, near the power supply. The PC is still running. What should the technician do FIRST?

  • Logs are useful later, but reading them while something may be burning leaves a fire and shock hazard active.
  • Correct. A burning smell can mean a component is overheating or arcing. Removing power first protects the user, the equipment, and the building.
  • A PSU tester is a valid diagnostic step, but only after the system is safely powered off and the hazard is contained.
  • Protecting data matters, but not before a safety hazard. Data can be recovered from the drive once the PC is safe.
Why it matters: A burning smell is a safety issue: remove power before any diagnosis. Testing and data recovery come after the hazard is controlled.
Mobile DevicesQuestion 6 of 10

A user receives a carrier text saying 90% of the monthly data allowance is used, and it is only the 12th of the month. Which should the technician do FIRST?

  • Changing the network generation does not reduce how much data apps send, and 3G is being retired.
  • Correct. Per-app data usage identifies what is using the allowance, so the technician can restrict or move that app to Wi-Fi.
  • A factory reset is drastic and does not identify the cause.
  • This stops the overage, but it is drastic, cuts off legitimate use away from Wi-Fi, and does not identify which app is responsible.
Why it matters: Recognizing data caps starts with measuring usage. Mobile OSs show per-app cellular data, which guides the fix.
NetworkingQuestion 7 of 10

A VoIP engineer asks a technician why the phone system carries live voice over UDP instead of TCP. Which explanation is BEST?

  • Correct. UDP avoids TCP's acknowledgment and retransmission delays, which suits real-time voice.
  • Ordered, guaranteed delivery is a TCP feature. UDP makes no delivery or ordering guarantees.
  • UDP's 8-byte header is smaller than TCP's, but that saves little. The real benefit is that UDP never stalls the stream waiting for acknowledgments or retransmissions.
  • The three-way handshake is how TCP establishes connections. UDP has no handshake at all.
Why it matters: UDP is connectionless and does not acknowledge or retransmit lost datagrams, so real-time traffic avoids the delay of TCP recovery. A late voice packet is useless anyway.
HardwareQuestion 8 of 10 · choose two

A technician is installing a 2.5-inch SATA SSD in a desktop PC. Which TWO cables must be connected to the drive? (Choose TWO.)

  • Molex powers legacy PATA drives and some fans; SATA drives use the 15-pin SATA power connector.
  • Correct. The 7-pin cable connects the drive to a SATA port on the motherboard.
  • eSATA is for external drives; an internal SSD uses a standard internal SATA data cable.
  • Correct. The PSU's 15-pin SATA power connector supplies the drive.
  • The 24-pin connector powers the motherboard, not individual drives.
Why it matters: SATA drives use a 7-pin SATA data cable to the motherboard and a 15-pin SATA power connector from the power supply.
Virtualization and Cloud ComputingQuestion 9 of 10

A company uses a SaaS customer relationship management application. Which task remains the company's responsibility rather than the provider's?

  • The SaaS provider patches the application and its web servers.
  • The provider maintains the operating systems running the service.
  • Physical hardware is always the provider's responsibility in any cloud service model.
  • Correct. In SaaS, customers still control who can sign in and what data they enter and share.
Why it matters: Even in SaaS, the customer keeps responsibility for its users, access permissions, and data.
Hardware and Network TroubleshootingQuestion 10 of 10

A projector sits on a table and is tilted up toward the screen. The image is wider at the top than at the bottom. What should the technician adjust?

  • Aspect ratio changes the width-to-height proportion of the whole image, not a top-versus-bottom difference.
  • Focus fixes sharpness, not the shape of the image.
  • Correct. Tilting the projector makes one edge wider than the other. Keystone correction compensates for the angle.
  • Resolution changes image detail, not the trapezoid caused by the tilt.
Why it matters: A trapezoid-shaped image comes from projecting at an angle. Keystone correction squares it up.

The 220-1201 exam at a glance

DomainWeightQuestions per 90-question practice exam
Mobile Devices13%12
Networking23%21
Hardware25%22
Virtualization and Cloud Computing11%10
Hardware and Network Troubleshooting28%25

The real exam has a maximum of 90 questions in 90 minutes and a passing score of 675 on a 100–900 scale. Each course exam is a full-length 90-question sitting timed at 90 minutes. Our 75% pass mark is a practice target, not a CompTIA number.

What A+ Core 1 really tests

Troubleshooting is the biggest domain. At 28%, hardware and network troubleshooting carries more weight than any other area: motherboards, RAM, CPU and power, drives and RAID, displays and projectors, mobile devices, networks and printers.

Scenarios, not definitions. Many objectives start with "given a scenario". Expect a ticket with symptoms and choose the fix that matches the evidence, at the right moment.

Networking and hardware detail. Ports and protocols, TCP vs UDP, wireless standards, SOHO IP configuration, cables and connectors, RAM, storage, CPUs, power supplies and printers.

Performance-based items. The exam mixes multiple-choice and performance-based questions. Udemy supports single-answer and multi-select items, so the course writes exhibits (spec sheets, command output, printer status pages) into the question.

Six full exams, 540 questions, all options explained

90 questions and 90 minutes per exam, weighted like the 220-1201 objectives, with multi-select items in every test.

See the A+ Core 1 course →

A+ Core 1 FAQ

How many questions are on the A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam?

A maximum of 90 questions in 90 minutes, multiple-choice and performance-based.

What is the A+ Core 1 passing score?

675 on a scale of 100 to 900. It is a scaled score, not a percentage. The course uses 75% on unseen tests only as a practice target.

How is the 220-1201 exam weighted?

Mobile Devices 13%, Networking 23%, Hardware 25%, Virtualization and Cloud Computing 11%, Hardware and Network Troubleshooting 28%.

Do I need Core 2 as well?

Yes. CompTIA A+ certification requires passing both Core 1 (220-1201) and Core 2 (220-1202).

How much experience does CompTIA recommend?

12 months of hands-on experience in an IT support specialist job role.

Are these real CompTIA exam questions?

No. Every question is original, written from CompTIA's public 220-1201 exam objectives. Real exam content is confidential.

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